Hi All,
I wonder if you can help with a few questions on invoicing by way of some imaginary scenarios.
1) If my colleague and I, who is employed by my business, invoice a company for say £1000 and my business doesn't have the £500 that is his 'half' sat in the bank, to pay for services he's now provided - isn't that overtrading?
2) If he is self employed and invoices me for £500 and the business hasn't £500 to pay them - again, isn't that overtrading?
The reason I'm a little unsure is I've been careful never to have outstanding invoices owing that I don't have money in the bank to cover if I 'shut shop' tomorrow. Paying invoices owed being a fine balance between using banked cash and money from invoices payed by clients, so I remain (reasonably) square each month.
When I told a supplier they might want to 'invoice my client directly' as I was doing the above, to paraphrase - they seemed a little surprised.
Have I gone bananas and can accept invoices for goods and services that I don't have the money for? I know I do in my personal finances, but...
Thanks,
Mark Crowther