Divorce consent order

[mike79]

Here's the story and hoping that somebody may be able to clear up if what happened was correct. My parents were divorced in the 90's and she lived in the family home with the remaining child while he moved out. The last child moved out as an adult and my mother lived there alone. She has now died without making a will and the house went to my father. Nobody challenged it. Apparently when they divorced, a consent order was made so that she could remain living there and whoever died first, the property would go to the ex spouse. Though after that he had threatened to sell it due to debts and she had to sign papers in order for him to take money out of the property. So because of the consent order, nothing went to any of the children. My question is whether this is a normal and accepted situation? The house has recently been sold giving him around 200K and I'm also concerned what he'll do with it given his past history of business failings and debts and how he could basically blow my mother's share on whatever he wanted and wasn't even married to her. Thank you.